DiscussWorldIssues - Socio-Economic Religion and Political Uncensored Debate - View Single Post - South Brahmins are Dravidians - where are we from & why some of us are fair skinned

**LottiFurmann** · 04-15-2012, 11:22 AM

Dear Jaykay, Greetings!

Dravidians refer to a mythical continent - Kumari Kandam in their ancient texts written 18 to 20 centuries back

Please take a look at this article: The Lemuria myth. This mythical Kumari Kandam -- Lemuria -- is indeed mythical. Modern scientific research shows continents did not submerge or disappear and that Kumari Kandam/Lemuria never existed.

Pl read my posts - Sanskrit is a dravidian origin, South Brahmins are Dravidians.

Jain texts written 1000s of years back clearly say Ramayana & Mahabarata are stories of Dravidian Cheiftains, this is stated by the Archealogy dept of India.

In Ramayana, Ravana is described as a "White Man" - Blonde hair (Golden hair like Sun), Blue eyes (eyes like deep blue sea), White Skin (Skin color like the white clouds). Dravidians knew the White Man very well & they talk about them living in their land, and the mixed race. Rama is Dark skinned, Lakshmana is White. etc..

If both Rama and Ravana were Dravidian kings, then how come Ravana and Lakshmana are white, only Rama is dark? I hope you are not arguing a Greek origin for Ravana and Lakshmana and a Dravidian origin for Rama alone, are you? Surely Ramayana story, if real, must have taken place before Alexander coming to India, no?

Troy is Ramayana (Identical story lines - wife gets kidnapped & triggers an extra-ordinary war, in which a great kingdom is destroyed), Odyssey are the same as Ramayana/Mahabarata. There are some similarities between Ramayana and Iliad, yes, but lots of stories have some similarities, how can we be sure that they are anything more than mere coincidence?

Let me put it in a different way, we know through archeological research the exact location of Troy, how many times it was sacked, and when. So, it is very possible that Homer was not simply making up a story, or adopting a story from the East, but retelling a real event with a lot of poetic license. Also, how can we be sure that Homer's Iliad is not the original, and that it did not migrate to India and transformed itself into Ramayana?

You also need to consider that Helen was the younger brother's wife, she willingly ran away with Paris, Menelaus and Paris were not the dominant characters in Iliad, Agamemnon was a tyrant, offered his own daughter as human sacrifice for which his wife later murdered him, etc., etc. If we take all this together, looking for any connection between Ramayana, which can very likely be pure fiction, and Iliad, which can be connected to archeological findings, is purely superficial and lacking any merit altogether.

so when south brahmins say they are from North/Vadaku (Vadagalai Iyengars etc..), they are from Andhra & North Karnataka. First, Karnataka is "mEl nAdu", not vada nAdu.

Many people argue "North" in Vadakalai refers to affinity for Sanskrit among Vadakalai Iyengars -- which you reject, i.e. to you, Sanskrit is from Nagappattinam and therefore not "North". Others argue "North" comes from the strength of Vadakalai Iyengars in Kanchipuram as opposed to the strength of Thenkalais in Sri Rangam. In any case, SV of either kalai was taken to Andhra country from the south.

Aryas are the Noble men in each of the dravidian tribes, thats why you have Bramhins in every community all over India. Let me cite a well researched, peer reviewed, scientific article that speaks to this point.

Genetic Evidence on the Origins of Indian Caste Populations

Some key findings from this article:

Indo-European-speaking people from West Eurasia entered India from the Northwest and diffused throughout the subcontinent.
For maternally inherited mtDNA, each caste is most similar to Asians.
for paternally inherited Y-chromosome variation each caste is more similar to Europeans than to Asians.
Moreover, the affinity to Europeans is proportionate to caste rank, the upper castes being most similar to Europeans, particularly East Europeans.
These findings are consistent with greater West Eurasian male admixture with castes of higher rank.

Where did this increasingly higher level of genetic similarity with increasing caste rank, to Europeans, come from?

Cheers!

04-15-2012, 11:22 AM	#2
LottiFurmann Join Date Jan 2008 Posts 4,494 Senior Member	Dear Jaykay, Greetings! Dravidians refer to a mythical continent - Kumari Kandam in their ancient texts written 18 to 20 centuries back Please take a look at this article: The Lemuria myth. This mythical Kumari Kandam -- Lemuria -- is indeed mythical. Modern scientific research shows continents did not submerge or disappear and that Kumari Kandam/Lemuria never existed. Pl read my posts - Sanskrit is a dravidian origin, South Brahmins are Dravidians. Jain texts written 1000s of years back clearly say Ramayana & Mahabarata are stories of Dravidian Cheiftains, this is stated by the Archealogy dept of India. In Ramayana, Ravana is described as a "White Man" - Blonde hair (Golden hair like Sun), Blue eyes (eyes like deep blue sea), White Skin (Skin color like the white clouds). Dravidians knew the White Man very well & they talk about them living in their land, and the mixed race. Rama is Dark skinned, Lakshmana is White. etc.. If both Rama and Ravana were Dravidian kings, then how come Ravana and Lakshmana are white, only Rama is dark? I hope you are not arguing a Greek origin for Ravana and Lakshmana and a Dravidian origin for Rama alone, are you? Surely Ramayana story, if real, must have taken place before Alexander coming to India, no? Troy is Ramayana (Identical story lines - wife gets kidnapped & triggers an extra-ordinary war, in which a great kingdom is destroyed), Odyssey are the same as Ramayana/Mahabarata. There are some similarities between Ramayana and Iliad, yes, but lots of stories have some similarities, how can we be sure that they are anything more than mere coincidence? Let me put it in a different way, we know through archeological research the exact location of Troy, how many times it was sacked, and when. So, it is very possible that Homer was not simply making up a story, or adopting a story from the East, but retelling a real event with a lot of poetic license. Also, how can we be sure that Homer's Iliad is not the original, and that it did not migrate to India and transformed itself into Ramayana? You also need to consider that Helen was the younger brother's wife, she willingly ran away with Paris, Menelaus and Paris were not the dominant characters in Iliad, Agamemnon was a tyrant, offered his own daughter as human sacrifice for which his wife later murdered him, etc., etc. If we take all this together, looking for any connection between Ramayana, which can very likely be pure fiction, and Iliad, which can be connected to archeological findings, is purely superficial and lacking any merit altogether. so when south brahmins say they are from North/Vadaku (Vadagalai Iyengars etc..), they are from Andhra & North Karnataka. First, Karnataka is "mEl nAdu", not vada nAdu. Many people argue "North" in Vadakalai refers to affinity for Sanskrit among Vadakalai Iyengars -- which you reject, i.e. to you, Sanskrit is from Nagappattinam and therefore not "North". Others argue "North" comes from the strength of Vadakalai Iyengars in Kanchipuram as opposed to the strength of Thenkalais in Sri Rangam. In any case, SV of either kalai was taken to Andhra country from the south. Aryas are the Noble men in each of the dravidian tribes, thats why you have Bramhins in every community all over India. Let me cite a well researched, peer reviewed, scientific article that speaks to this point. Genetic Evidence on the Origins of Indian Caste Populations Some key findings from this article: Indo-European-speaking people from West Eurasia entered India from the Northwest and diffused throughout the subcontinent. For maternally inherited mtDNA, each caste is most similar to Asians. for paternally inherited Y-chromosome variation each caste is more similar to Europeans than to Asians. Moreover, the affinity to Europeans is proportionate to caste rank, the upper castes being most similar to Europeans, particularly East Europeans. These findings are consistent with greater West Eurasian male admixture with castes of higher rank. Where did this increasingly higher level of genetic similarity with increasing caste rank, to Europeans, come from? Cheers!
	Quote