[TorryJens]

I Mahadevan is very clearly stating "But linguistically, if the Indus script is deciphered, we may hopefully find that the proto-Dravidian roots of the Harappan language and South Indian Dravidian languages are similar. "

Do you understand this statement devapriya ?

He also states "I often say that if the key to the Indus script linguistically is Dravidian, then culturally the key to the Indus script is Vedic. What I mean is that the cultural traits of the Indus Valley civilization are likely to have been absorbed by the successor Indo-Aryan civilization in Punjab and Sindh, and that the civilization in the far south would have changed out of recognition."

He here means that the vedics copied the culture of IV people, who by genetic lineage(however pure it may be) are in south now. The Originators of the IV civilizations were a bunch of smart people that evolve culturaly over time and space. While the bunch of m***** vedics are still stuck with those outdated ideas of the now modern southerners.

Now I understand the reason for devapriya's meaning less posts, I strongly advise her to get into some basic english course. So that she can understand what others are writing !