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**HedgeYourBets** · 11-27-2005, 07:56 AM

According to many scholars, the Sri Rudram is part of Yajur Veda so is Purusha Shooktam (there is another version in the Rig Verda).

Why so much of confusion here?? Why must Sri Rudram be 'part' of Yajur Veda?? Is it not in the Yajur Veda - in all origin??? How many 'add-on's that came later become 'part' of these Vedas? And how long is this going to go on?

The word Siva itself is Sanskrit which could mean kindness, peace, benevolence, calm, beauty, etc. The Sanskrit word 'Siva' (Shiva) is used to mean 'auspicious' (adjective) all over the Vedas - It never meant 'A God, named Siva' in the Vedas. And the Vedic 'Rudra' is NOT the native 'Siva'.

The date of Sri Rudram that you have quoted is also incorrect. Well - I don't normally get very close on the first date! I let the other party make the first move - it works very well for me!

Contrary to what you said about the lack of names for Sanskrit texts, here is some information. When Veda Vyasa classified the Vedas, there was only one form. He later taught Yajur Veda to his pupil Vaisampayana. Vaisampayan taught it to his pupil Yagnavalkya. When Vaisampayana and Yagnavalkya had a misunderstanding, Vaisamoayana asked his pupil to return what he learnt which was acqueised. Later, Yagnavalkya prayed to Surya (the Sun) who accepted him as a pupil and taught him Yajur Veda which came to be called Vaajasaneyi or Sukla Yajur Veda. There you are! I was right when I said that the authors are legendry or mythological. The 'Sun' coming to earth to teach --- What would you call that- Histroy?

Since this was called Sukla, the one taught by Vaisampayana came to be known as Krishna Yajur Veda. Also, Yajur Veda is not just about yagnas. The Brahadaranyaka and Thaitreya Upanishad have roots in Yajur Veda as is the philosophy of Advaitha. How can they have 'roots in the Yajur Veda - when no one can show a direct link or some similarities- to the Yajur Veda! Can you show me some 'roots'.

There are numerous references to Shiva in the Vedas and we can agree to disagree on that score. You mean the four Vedas, Rig, Sama, Yajur and Atharvan. There is no 'Siva' - the God, in the Vedas. YOu you think He was there - show me some verses!

Appar swamigal's question is when the temple at Arur originated. In fact he has clearly made it a question "munno pinno" and never took the view that it happened before as you suggest. If is was later -- Appar would not have said - 'munno pinno'. Just 'pin' (later) would have be enough! He raised doubts, didn't he!

My reply is to what the "eights" were about and that is the reference to Sri Rudram which explains what the "eights" were. As far as I know, there is no other reference to what the "eights" were before Appar. Since, Appar referenced them, he knew what the "eights" were. Some 600-700 years before Appar the Tamils talk of 'eights' and Siva. Valluvar mentions that the Lord has 8 kuNams.....

§¸¡Ç¢ø ¦À¡È¢Â¢ü Ì½Á¢Ä§Å ±ñÌ½ò¾¡ý
¾¡¨Ç Å½í¸¡ò ¾¨Ä.
--kural 9
[/quote]

11-27-2005, 07:56 AM	#35
HedgeYourBets Join Date Aug 2008 Posts 4,655 Senior Member	According to many scholars, the Sri Rudram is part of Yajur Veda so is Purusha Shooktam (there is another version in the Rig Verda). Why so much of confusion here?? Why must Sri Rudram be 'part' of Yajur Veda?? Is it not in the Yajur Veda - in all origin??? How many 'add-on's that came later become 'part' of these Vedas? And how long is this going to go on? The word Siva itself is Sanskrit which could mean kindness, peace, benevolence, calm, beauty, etc. The Sanskrit word 'Siva' (Shiva) is used to mean 'auspicious' (adjective) all over the Vedas - It never meant 'A God, named Siva' in the Vedas. And the Vedic 'Rudra' is NOT the native 'Siva'. The date of Sri Rudram that you have quoted is also incorrect. Well - I don't normally get very close on the first date! I let the other party make the first move - it works very well for me! Contrary to what you said about the lack of names for Sanskrit texts, here is some information. When Veda Vyasa classified the Vedas, there was only one form. He later taught Yajur Veda to his pupil Vaisampayana. Vaisampayan taught it to his pupil Yagnavalkya. When Vaisampayana and Yagnavalkya had a misunderstanding, Vaisamoayana asked his pupil to return what he learnt which was acqueised. Later, Yagnavalkya prayed to Surya (the Sun) who accepted him as a pupil and taught him Yajur Veda which came to be called Vaajasaneyi or Sukla Yajur Veda. There you are! I was right when I said that the authors are legendry or mythological. The 'Sun' coming to earth to teach --- What would you call that- Histroy? Since this was called Sukla, the one taught by Vaisampayana came to be known as Krishna Yajur Veda. Also, Yajur Veda is not just about yagnas. The Brahadaranyaka and Thaitreya Upanishad have roots in Yajur Veda as is the philosophy of Advaitha. How can they have 'roots in the Yajur Veda - when no one can show a direct link or some similarities- to the Yajur Veda! Can you show me some 'roots'. There are numerous references to Shiva in the Vedas and we can agree to disagree on that score. You mean the four Vedas, Rig, Sama, Yajur and Atharvan. There is no 'Siva' - the God, in the Vedas. YOu you think He was there - show me some verses! Appar swamigal's question is when the temple at Arur originated. In fact he has clearly made it a question "munno pinno" and never took the view that it happened before as you suggest. If is was later -- Appar would not have said - 'munno pinno'. Just 'pin' (later) would have be enough! He raised doubts, didn't he! My reply is to what the "eights" were about and that is the reference to Sri Rudram which explains what the "eights" were. As far as I know, there is no other reference to what the "eights" were before Appar. Since, Appar referenced them, he knew what the "eights" were. Some 600-700 years before Appar the Tamils talk of 'eights' and Siva. Valluvar mentions that the Lord has 8 kuNams..... §¸¡Ç¢ø ¦À¡È¢Â¢ü Ì½Á¢Ä§Å ±ñÌ½ò¾¡ý ¾¡¨Ç Å½í¸¡ò ¾¨Ä. --kural 9 [/quote]
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