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Mundane and Supramundane
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05-08-2011, 03:20 AM
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Quaganoca
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Oct 2005
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407
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Is the Buddha not using direct experience to teach here?:
Here, householders, a noble disciple reflects thus: 'I am one who wishes to live, who does not wish to die; I desire happiness and am averse to suffering. Since I am one who wishes to live, who does not wish to die; who desires happiness and is averse to suffering; if someone were to take my life, that would not be pleasing and agreeable to me. Now if I were to take the life of another -- of one who wishes to live, who does not wish to die, who desires happiness and is averse to suffering--that would not be pleasing and agreeable to the other either. What is displeasing and disagreeable to me is displeasing and disagreeable to the other too. How can I inflict upon another what is displeasing and disagreeable to me?' Having reflected thus, he himself abstains from the destruction of life, exhorts others to abstain from the destruction of life, and speaks in praise of abstinence from the destruction of life. Thus this bodily conduct of his is purified in three respects.
The Buddha did not teach using an presumption that "there is the conceptual and the non-conceptual, intellectualization and direct experience." I know that this is a popular assumption in many sects, but it is not a given conceptual framework in the Buddha's teachings, and it is in itself an example of the sort of "intellectualization" of the Buddha's teachings that it claims to refute.
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