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Old 12-30-2011, 09:16 PM   #34
RogHammon

Join Date
Oct 2005
Posts
598
Senior Member
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30%... never knew it was so high in parts of the US, it is about par with Roman empire... if someone could provide a credible source for the general % of population estimated to be in slavery during the roman empire, it would be very nice. didn't most greek city-states have like >50% slavery rating?

I really don't think support for imperialism (in general) as a concept can be explained as a reason for gaining Texas' independence from Mexico. Mexican government at the time was as "imperialist" as US government at the time.

Mexican (Spanish) areas at the time were very sparsely populated and the central government of Mexico didn't have much control over what happened in northern, remote areas such as California and Texas at the time. It didn't "need" the land in the sense that it could afford to send enough colonists there, so immigrants from U.S. slowly overtook it.

I hadn't thought about slavery as a reason for independence from Mexico, but now that Al mentioned it, slavery was indeed illegal in Mexico (AFAIK, the years were 1825 de jure and 1830s de facto; Texas secession was in 1845). and legal in southern US at the time. I think Al raises a very good point about the hidden agenda of the Texan "freedom fighters" of the time.
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