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Since the only form of sexual activity blessed by the Christian Church is normal relations between a married man and woman (we can't say 'spouses' because the House of Lords has, in one connection, ruled that that includes homosexual partners), it would be just as wrong to ordain to the episcopate (or priesthood or diaconate) a man who was known to be cohabiting with a woman to whom he was not married or known to be in an adulterous relationship. Do we know if those who support the ordination of active homosexuals would also support the ordination of those known to be in relationships which involve fornication or adultery? If they do, then they are being consistent. If they do not, how do they distinguish homosexual activity from fornication and adultery?

Andreas.

PS And, one would have to add, in the Orthodox Church, the only permitted sexual relations are those between a couple who have been married in the Orthodox Church. I know of one priest whose Orthodox daughter married a non-Orthodox man in a civil ceremony only - he, the priest, cannot give Holy Communion to his own daughter.