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Old 12-19-2006, 10:44 PM   #4
Stengapsept

Join Date
Oct 2005
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651
Senior Member
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[QUOTE=Andreas Moran;39765]Since the only form of sexual activity blessed by the Christian Church is normal relations between a married man and woman (we can't say 'spouses' because the House of Lords has, in one connection, ruled that that includes homosexual partners), it would be just as wrong to ordain to the episcopate (or priesthood or diaconate) a man who was known to be cohabiting with a woman to whom he was not married or known to be in an adulterous relationship. Do we know if those who support the ordination of active homosexuals would also support the ordination of those known to be in relationships which involve fornication or adultery? If they do, then they are being consistent. If they do not, how do they distinguish homosexual activity from fornication and adultery?

Andreas.
QUOTE]

Dear Andreas,

One could say many things (but I won't) about those who wish to have 'gay' priests, but they are at least consistent, and don't see why cohabitation or adultery (as long as it is in the past) should get in the way either.

They are consistent - and consistently wrong from the Orthodox viewpoint. And even as I type this, I think of why I stayed there so long!


In Christ,

John
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