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**Fruriourl** · 09-15-2012, 06:12 PM

I saw this news item about the Bryan Brothers Davis Cup win and it got me thinking:

"The USA has only once recovered from a 0-2 deficit -- in 1934 -- but its record improves when down 1-2, having done it five times with the last being in 2000."
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I was wondering, have our chances really improved? At first glance I would think the doubles match is irrelevant, in order to come back from 0-2, both singles players have to flip to 2-0. Whatever happens in the double match has no impact on how the singles players perform. Obviously if the Bryan's lost we'd be out, but the guys who went 0-2 don't play doubles, so theoretically those are two independent events.

Maybe a stats/information theory guy can help me out on this.

09-15-2012, 06:12 PM	#1
Fruriourl Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 452 Senior Member	Davis Cup: Is 1-2 really better than 0-2? I saw this news item about the Bryan Brothers Davis Cup win and it got me thinking: "The USA has only once recovered from a 0-2 deficit -- in 1934 -- but its record improves when down 1-2, having done it five times with the last being in 2000." __________________________________________________ __________________________________________________ ______________ I was wondering, have our chances really improved? At first glance I would think the doubles match is irrelevant, in order to come back from 0-2, both singles players have to flip to 2-0. Whatever happens in the double match has no impact on how the singles players perform. Obviously if the Bryan's lost we'd be out, but the guys who went 0-2 don't play doubles, so theoretically those are two independent events. Maybe a stats/information theory guy can help me out on this.
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