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**JulieSmithdccd** · 09-16-2012, 01:20 AM

It took a couple reads but I do understand it now. The doubles match would likely be the most independent of all five matches, so this seems to make sense to me. If you have already won a singles match (ie you were 1-1 in singles) that would mean you're more likely to go 2-0 on the third day than if you had gone 0-2 the first day - you obviously have at least one person capable of winning singles matches.

Wonder how this stat works out for other countries?

09-16-2012, 01:20 AM	#4
JulieSmithdccd Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 592 Senior Member	It took a couple reads but I do understand it now. The doubles match would likely be the most independent of all five matches, so this seems to make sense to me. If you have already won a singles match (ie you were 1-1 in singles) that would mean you're more likely to go 2-0 on the third day than if you had gone 0-2 the first day - you obviously have at least one person capable of winning singles matches. Wonder how this stat works out for other countries?
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