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Old 01-21-2007, 12:50 AM   #10
gkruCRi1

Join Date
Oct 2005
Posts
505
Senior Member
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It doesn't specify that in the constitution.



Source = Link in my sig
The term 'ex post facto' literally means "from something done afterward" but it was always a technical term in criminal law.

The inapplicability of the clause to civil matters and what aspects it refers to in the criminal law was explained and resolved by the SCOTUS in the case of Calder v. Bull in 1798, almost right after the Constitution was ratified.

In the court's words, the ex post facto clause is implicated in the following circumstances:

Hell, I'd probably be in prison for the rest of my fucking life if government assholes could make ex post facto laws...

And the rest of you would follow.
I agree that applying a law, whether civil or criminal, retroactively to the detriment of a person is unjust in general principle. My state also has the following statutory provision:

§ 1926. Presumption against retroactive effect.

No statute shall be construed to be retroactive unless clearly and manifestly so intended by the General Assembly. CONSTRUCTION OF STATUTES
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