this is classic 'valid difference of opinion' card. and it is invalid because his opinion is a minority. please use the search function on SF to read why are such opinions discarded. his opinion and he is entitled to it. however there were several Islamic 'states' before colonialism. weak fact he gave. and the islamic state is not based on any european models. anyone who has read shariah law and european law(s) can tell you that.this further weakens the arguments however. as if the two things are mutually exclusive. come visit pakistan or turkey sometimes. sure. lets see it. but let us begin with the definition of 'state' and how the first four caliphs governed their dominions. i am sure this has been dissected in the 'democracy' thread and the author's views are hence incorrect. any third person reading this can check in the in-depth islam section. well the relegation is ground reality in secular muslim states isnt it? he himself is confused. religion and state and politics are not disconnected. he has chosen to disconnect the first two and joined the last two and then assumed that is correct. and his solution to 'mediate it' is again his own opinion whch he has presented as fact. it is not a reality. i do wish seculars would quit stating their opinions as facts. his intolerance can be seen in the port i put in bold. he has again assumed that basic islamic laws have to evolve with time. hence to him pre and post colonial fundamental laws have to be different. it is this thing which is the bone of contention between seculars and the supporters of shariah. otherwise shariah is very flexible. so yes post colonial traumas can be handled w/o the secularists. ah. can you produce the quote from ibn taymiyyah (rh) directly from the book he said it in. we would like to see it. also since when has religious piety and the individual's capacity to fulfill ethical and professional code of the job become mutually exclusive? there needs to be both. and to assume an individual can follow ethics constantly while not even practicing islam fully is ridiculous. he (or the author) quotes khalid bin walid's (ra) appointment as example. can khalid bin walid (ra) be compared to a hardly practicing modernist secular? no he cannot be. hence the comparison is immediately null and void. curiosuly why was Hadrat Abu Bakr chosen as first caliph? ask yourself that. then again, if that really is what ibn taymiyyah said it is irresponsible to not see what other scholars have said on this. have the majority of fuqaha held the same opinion?