So obviously, when the person asks the original question, they are referring, unless they specifically mention otherwise, to the general understanding of pantheism today, among the people and in the dictionaries and encyclopedias. If there is some historical meaning that is different, than how is that relevant, and why would you start a debate in which clearly the basic definitions of the different parties don't match? To discuss this issue, you should have started a new thread entitled, "Historically Pantheism was not mutually exclusive with Islam" and then whoever was interested could discuss that topic, with an understanding of the baseline upon which discussion is taking place.