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Old 06-13-2012, 07:27 PM   #8
MexicoCity

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Nov 2005
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according to Shafi madhab, a father can force her daughter to merry the man he choses for her. Honestly I just can't understand how come this is possible, but I found out it is, at least I've been told so!
It is not as simple as that.

Extracts from Shafi'i Fiqh book, Umdat As salik:

No guardian may marry a woman to someone
who is not a suitable match (def: m4) without
her acceptance and the acceptance of all who can
be guardians.

The only guardians who may compel
their charge to marry are a virgin bride's father or
father's father, compel meaning to marry her to a
suitable match (def: m4 ) without her consent.

A SUITABLE MATCH (KAFA'A)
(N: The definition of a suitable match should
not be misunderstood as a recommendation for
whom to marry. It is merely a legal restriction to
protect a woman's interests
when the father or
grandfather of a virgin marry her to someone
without her consent
(dis: m3.13,15). As for when
she wishes to marry someone who is not a suitable
match, and her guardian has no objection, there is
nothing wrong or offensive in her doing so.)



I don't understand how the above became this:
according to Shafi madhab, a father can force her daughter to merry the man he choses for her. Kindly don't say things without proper knowledge.


P.s. for the complete extract: http://www.sunniforum.com/forum/show...l=1#post773133



if the shaafi madhab really does say that, then the shaafi madhab is wrong. As usual quick to judge if it doesn't comply with own opinion. Remember Shaafi Fiqh is based on Quran, Sunnah, ijma, Qiyas etc. A result of hundreds of years of scholarship following a specific usool. Yet you rejected it 'just like that'. What happened to you bro, you were more reasonable few months back.
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