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**CurtisTH** · 06-05-2012, 10:46 PM

Wrong topic. And flawed argument for He is used in English language even without real gender. And we dont say translation in itself is similitude. Utter nonsense. Fact is you affirm the apparent meaning and in this case a wahhabi should affirm male gender as per so called "apparent" meaning criteria of your manhaj.

First you say he is used without male gender, than you say the apparent meaning of he is male gender? Make up your mind.

And yes, some of "You" do say translations are not permissible, because by translating you are giving it a meaning.

06-05-2012, 10:46 PM	#17
CurtisTH Join Date Nov 2005 Posts 391 Senior Member	Wrong topic. And flawed argument for He is used in English language even without real gender. And we dont say translation in itself is similitude. Utter nonsense. Fact is you affirm the apparent meaning and in this case a wahhabi should affirm male gender as per so called "apparent" meaning criteria of your manhaj. First you say he is used without male gender, than you say the apparent meaning of he is male gender? Make up your mind. And yes, some of "You" do say translations are not permissible, because by translating you are giving it a meaning.
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