If that was the case, why did Allah made polygamy lawful in the first place? And that too with not many restrictions? Ta'addud-e-azwaaj is in the fitrah of man. Try as you might to explain it away, but men, generally speaking, are polygamous by nature, just as women are possessive and jealous by nature. Why should he control himself when Allah has already given him a lawful means to fulfill those desires? Why would he restrict himself from that which Allah has made halaal for him? What is there to feel sorry about? Perhaps. But then again, we all know what happened when the Messenger of Allah , in order to please his wives, prohibited for himself that which Allah made permissible: يَا أَيُّهَا النَّبِيُّ لِمَ تُحَرِّمُ مَا أَحَلَّ اللَّهُ لَكَ تَبْتَغِي مَرْضَاتَ أَزْوَاجِكَ وَاللَّهُ غَفُورٌ رَّحِيمٌ 66:1 O PROPHET! Why dost thou, out of a desire to please [one or another of] thy wives, impose [on thyself] a prohibition of something that God has made lawful to thee? But God is much-forgiving, a dispenser of grace