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**Suentiend** · 06-09-2009, 07:19 PM

The Hadeeth states that Muslims will be without an Ameer and looking for an Ameer when Mahdi appears.

To imply that this event will occur with King Fahd or King Abdullah is considering them "Ameer for Muslims", isn't it?

Muslims have been without an Ameer (Abdul Hameed Khan (RA)) since 1924, what have the Saudees got to do with this?

May be Mullah Umar is that Ameer because Muslims from many parts of the world came to Afghanistan to do bait on his hand.

May be after the death of Mullah Umar

06-09-2009, 07:19 PM	#11
Suentiend Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 516 Senior Member	The Hadeeth states that Muslims will be without an Ameer and looking for an Ameer when Mahdi appears. To imply that this event will occur with King Fahd or King Abdullah is considering them "Ameer for Muslims", isn't it? Muslims have been without an Ameer (Abdul Hameed Khan (RA)) since 1924, what have the Saudees got to do with this? May be Mullah Umar is that Ameer because Muslims from many parts of the world came to Afghanistan to do bait on his hand. May be after the death of Mullah Umar
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