DiscussWorldIssues - Socio-Economic Religion and Political Uncensored Debate - View Single Post - Qasidah Burda- Shirk?

**FliveGell** · 04-25-2009, 06:52 PM

Brother,

The example in English serves the same purpose as in Arabic e.g. tells you how not to go down the path of literal interpretation and take linguistics into consideration which you (salafees) can't grasp for some reason.

You have STILL TO ANSWER as to who did you assume that the couplet in question means to say that the Prophet (Sallaho Alaihe Wassallam) knows everyting from Luh and Qalam or has independent access to it. Please give me a grammatical breakdown as to why you are assuming that?

Don't assume things and don't put your own thoughts into people's minds unless you have some evidence to back it up!

Again this is NOT Arabic langauge generalisation, this is your twisted idea and assuming the worst of Muslims (another typical Salafi trait) which is against the Sunnah as we are supposed to assume the best in a Muslim (and not the worst), give excuses and protect the dignity of a Muslim as I am sure that somewhere you must have come across this Hadeeth.

P.S: The bits in RED BOLD speaks volumes about how you actually think about other Muslims.

First of all, this is not my "twisted reasoning", but the understanding of great scholars such as Sheikh Ibn Othiameen, who was a master in the field of Arabic grammar. Since you still cannot understand the Qaa'idah that ive attempted to explain to you, lets try some examples. Maybe that will clarify things.

If I were to say: H'afitha Muhammadu Al-Qur'aan.

Would this mean that Muhammad had memorized the entire Quran, or only a part of it? When a general statement is made, it is taken just that way. You have to prove to me that it is not general, not the other way around.

04-25-2009, 06:52 PM	#36
FliveGell Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 401 Senior Member	Brother, The example in English serves the same purpose as in Arabic e.g. tells you how not to go down the path of literal interpretation and take linguistics into consideration which you (salafees) can't grasp for some reason. You have STILL TO ANSWER as to who did you assume that the couplet in question means to say that the Prophet (Sallaho Alaihe Wassallam) knows everyting from Luh and Qalam or has independent access to it. Please give me a grammatical breakdown as to why you are assuming that? Don't assume things and don't put your own thoughts into people's minds unless you have some evidence to back it up! Again this is NOT Arabic langauge generalisation, this is your twisted idea and assuming the worst of Muslims (another typical Salafi trait) which is against the Sunnah as we are supposed to assume the best in a Muslim (and not the worst), give excuses and protect the dignity of a Muslim as I am sure that somewhere you must have come across this Hadeeth. P.S: The bits in RED BOLD speaks volumes about how you actually think about other Muslims. First of all, this is not my "twisted reasoning", but the understanding of great scholars such as Sheikh Ibn Othiameen, who was a master in the field of Arabic grammar. Since you still cannot understand the Qaa'idah that ive attempted to explain to you, lets try some examples. Maybe that will clarify things. If I were to say: H'afitha Muhammadu Al-Qur'aan. Would this mean that Muhammad had memorized the entire Quran, or only a part of it? When a general statement is made, it is taken just that way. You have to prove to me that it is not general, not the other way around.
	Quote