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Old 12-31-2011, 11:33 AM   #18
Caunnysup

Join Date
Oct 2005
Posts
470
Senior Member
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ws,
maybe someone went to hijaz and read ibn taymiyyah and sh. ibn abdul wahhab during that era?


But the difference is, the Salafi "Wahhabi" movement in the Arabian peninsula was not something that was staunchly anti-madhhab or anti-taqleed. That's why you still find a lot of Shafi'is and Hanbalis in Saudi Arabia. In fact, you'd be hard pressed to find a complete ghair muqallid in Saudi Arabia, especially amongst the laymen.

On the other hand, the Ahle Hadees movement is drastically different from the Saudi Salafis. The Salafi "Wahhabi" movement began in Arabia due to the prevalence of bid'ah. The Ahle Hadees movement began due to the prevalence of Hanafis. Obviously, the intentions of the Saudi "Wahhabis" were much nobler than the evil intentions behind the creation of the Ahle Hadees movement. What is the point of creating a movement based on attacking the muqallid?

No one would have had problems with the Ahle Hadees if they had not been so extremely obvious in creating discord in the Indian subcontinent by attacking Hanafis left and right. There is a reason why Deoband is a staunch proponent of taqleed.

The Shafi'is, as an example, are a lot more lax when it comes to taking dispensation from different madhahib on issues, yet the Indian/Pakistani Hanafis did not write or speak against this view.
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