Here is a related Q&A from AskImam.org (my underlining): Source: http://www.askimam.org/fatwa/fatwa.p...1444782fa4ae89 I am pretty sure that the mufti would have mentioned it, had it been fisq and fujur... And of course he wouldn't have mentioned nullifying the bay'at as a solution, if it would make the questioner into a fasiq. Wa Allahu a'lam...