[tobia]

I notice that there is a tendency sometimes to quote the founder of a madhab when trying to state the opinion of a madhab regarding a particular matter. Wouldn't it be more accurate to quote the books of the madhab that contain the relied upon views regarding the particular matter in question? This method of stating the founder of a madhab's opinion of a matter as the strongest proof when his view might not be the opinion the madhab follows today has always confused me. Maybe someone can help me understand why it is done.