DiscussWorldIssues - Socio-Economic Religion and Political Uncensored Debate - View Single Post - Ashraf 'Ali Thanvi: Salaf took literal meaning of sifaat

**vipBrooriErok** · 11-23-2010, 12:50 AM

You did not portray the whole picture. He said Salaf took the literal meaning of sifaat. Which goes against the kalamist ash'ari/maturidi aqeedah.

akhi,

see how useless is this? Now you are making another claim that the picture is not whole. But it was for this very clarity I asked you and I quote:

Whats the difference between "true nature" Vs "any modality"? If tafweedh is being made of both of these then what is there left of the "literal meaning"? For this first start by explaining what does "kunh" means? I asked you this above..

Remember as far as I am concerned, your understanding is deficient from the risalah, and its not my perorogative to engage you in the discussion. I do not even wish to have this discussion as the explanation in the risalah plus the supplementary writings is more than sufficient for a taalib. Hence my way to tackling your thread here will by simply probing you to present the info from this risalah which you have understood now. If you are unable to provide it, then it will show your wrong intent. If you present it, then I will rectify any inaccuracy i perceive.

So, Could you please post from the risalah how he explains the tareeq of the gher muqallideen. So that we can have both the views side to side. salaf Vs salafi... This will also assure me that you understood the risalah in its proper context. What you can perhaps do is show where his attribution of the salafi understanding is incorrect. If he has not erred and you wholehartedly agree to the three lined which you translated to be the salaf methodology, then please do let me know. I will not have any qualms with you.

11-23-2010, 12:50 AM	#30
vipBrooriErok Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 381 Senior Member	You did not portray the whole picture. He said Salaf took the literal meaning of sifaat. Which goes against the kalamist ash'ari/maturidi aqeedah. akhi, see how useless is this? Now you are making another claim that the picture is not whole. But it was for this very clarity I asked you and I quote: Whats the difference between "true nature" Vs "any modality"? If tafweedh is being made of both of these then what is there left of the "literal meaning"? For this first start by explaining what does "kunh" means? I asked you this above.. Remember as far as I am concerned, your understanding is deficient from the risalah, and its not my perorogative to engage you in the discussion. I do not even wish to have this discussion as the explanation in the risalah plus the supplementary writings is more than sufficient for a taalib. Hence my way to tackling your thread here will by simply probing you to present the info from this risalah which you have understood now. If you are unable to provide it, then it will show your wrong intent. If you present it, then I will rectify any inaccuracy i perceive. So, Could you please post from the risalah how he explains the tareeq of the gher muqallideen. So that we can have both the views side to side. salaf Vs salafi... This will also assure me that you understood the risalah in its proper context. What you can perhaps do is show where his attribution of the salafi understanding is incorrect. If he has not erred and you wholehartedly agree to the three lined which you translated to be the salaf methodology, then please do let me know. I will not have any qualms with you.
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