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Old 07-31-2013, 11:32 AM   #5
9mm_fan

Join Date
May 2007
Age
53
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5,191
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By "partially due to Western oppression" do you mean due to the aid the West provided for their royal allies in spite of the oppressive nature of those royals and their government to the common citizen?
Was the west guilty by not condemning the actions of and withholding aid to the government in power, or do you imply a more direct form of oppression?
Edit: I was asking rudiger10's opinion on the matter, as in a viewpoint from the responding representative to the request "Any Iranian wants to chime in?" Apparently that wasn't clear, but thank you for your viewpoints.
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