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**Fededorbprago** · 09-01-2012, 12:48 PM

I just don't understand one thing and it doesn't make any sense. Let say that maciamo is right and that R1b in Europe is INDO-European. How is it possible then that R1b migrated from Anatolia into Europe after J2a without mixing with local Anatolian J2a? The native J2a is even more dominant than R1b in Anatolia.

If R1b INDO-European migrated out of Anatolia into Western Europe they would bring some J2a with them, since R1b and J2a have always been living together (with & next to each other) in Anatolia, since the very beginning when Central Asian R1b migrated into Anatolia. J2a was in Anatolia even before R1b.

But I think that it's true that some Anatolian Indo-European R1b subclades migrated into Europe.

09-01-2012, 12:48 PM	#26
Fededorbprago Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 405 Senior Member	I just don't understand one thing and it doesn't make any sense. Let say that maciamo is right and that R1b in Europe is INDO-European. How is it possible then that R1b migrated from Anatolia into Europe after J2a without mixing with local Anatolian J2a? The native J2a is even more dominant than R1b in Anatolia. If R1b INDO-European migrated out of Anatolia into Western Europe they would bring some J2a with them, since R1b and J2a have always been living together (with & next to each other) in Anatolia, since the very beginning when Central Asian R1b migrated into Anatolia. J2a was in Anatolia even before R1b. But I think that it's true that some Anatolian Indo-European R1b subclades migrated into Europe.
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