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**L0KoxewQ** · 02-25-2012, 01:51 PM

Over here in our 'socialist' paradise, he'd qualify for long-term disability, after his salary expired. Regardless of whether it was work-related or not, he'd receive full pay for the first six months, 50% for the next six months, assuming he was working full time when he got hurt. After that, I think the period of support is three years, obviously dependent upon the type and severity of the injuries. In the private sector, there wouldn't be the obligation for the employer to pay his salary. These benefits would apply only where he worked in the public sector/local government. Even then he'd still qualify for enhanced sickness benefit. And of course his treatment would incur no cost to him.

02-25-2012, 01:51 PM	#29
L0KoxewQ Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 411 Senior Member	Over here in our 'socialist' paradise, he'd qualify for long-term disability, after his salary expired. Regardless of whether it was work-related or not, he'd receive full pay for the first six months, 50% for the next six months, assuming he was working full time when he got hurt. After that, I think the period of support is three years, obviously dependent upon the type and severity of the injuries. In the private sector, there wouldn't be the obligation for the employer to pay his salary. These benefits would apply only where he worked in the public sector/local government. Even then he'd still qualify for enhanced sickness benefit. And of course his treatment would incur no cost to him.
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