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**inchaaruutaa** · 08-23-2009, 07:24 PM

Finally hunted down what that statistic is. It's the mortality rate divided by the incidence rate. Crudely, it can be thought of as one over the "average" survival time with the disease from diagnosis to death (there are a couple of problems with this view, but it's not terrible as a heuristic).

You're a ****ing idiot, Straybow.

The "length of the study" has absolutely nothing to do with anything. Lead time bias is hugely important to this statistic. And saying that "the death rate for prostate cancer in the US is 19% while in the UK it's 57%" is simply idiotic.

Tard.

08-23-2009, 07:24 PM	#30
inchaaruutaa Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 445 Senior Member	Finally hunted down what that statistic is. It's the mortality rate divided by the incidence rate. Crudely, it can be thought of as one over the "average" survival time with the disease from diagnosis to death (there are a couple of problems with this view, but it's not terrible as a heuristic). You're a ****ing idiot, Straybow. The "length of the study" has absolutely nothing to do with anything. Lead time bias is hugely important to this statistic. And saying that "the death rate for prostate cancer in the US is 19% while in the UK it's 57%" is simply idiotic. Tard.
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