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**Unrersvar** · 05-12-2011, 06:33 AM

Lets say for a second that at this instant for some mysterious reason everyone in the world would become enlightened. Therefore according to the teachings no one would truly experience suffering. If a loved one were to die, they would understand all things are impermanent.

Yes

Would an enlightened person experience the fruits of kamma by killing someone?

No. An enlightened person has no reason or motive to kill someone

He would not cause suffering to those who loved the one who was killed because they are enlightened too.

No. An enlightened person has no reason or motive to kill someone

You may say to yourself that an enlightened person would not have the urge to kill, because he is free from craving.

Yes.

I am aware of this, but this enlightened person would lets say not do this out of anger or hatred or greed, but killed another just so.

No. That is not possible.

You may then say that since an enlightened person is free from urges, he would not have any urge at all not even killing.

Yes.

But then would he have the urge to eat and so forth.

The enlightened person is not a cannibal and therefore does not need to kill other human beings for food.

However, as for killing other beings, such as worms or fish in acquiring food, your question is just hypothetical because there has never been 100% enlightened beings on this earth. But, you know, they could just eat things like fruit & nuts, which does not require any killing.

I am sorry for the long question but it is really a stumbling block for me on my insight. The moral aspect of this is really bothering me. Should I just drop this question altogether? .

Yes, definitely. But your mind already know the solution to your own dilema. This comes from insight or intuitive wisdom.

I know that the fifth aggregate of consciousness talks about how consciousness is changed moment to moment, e.g eye-consciousness, ear-consciousness. And that the consciousness that sees is different from the one that hears. However, when you watch a movie, you see a person, and hear them talk at the same time. Is this because the moments of consciounsess arise and pass away so fast that they blend together?

The arising & passing away is not so fast they it cannot be discerned by the mind. As for the blending together, this is just obscuration.

Regards & welcome

05-12-2011, 06:33 AM	#2
Unrersvar Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 511 Senior Member	Lets say for a second that at this instant for some mysterious reason everyone in the world would become enlightened. Therefore according to the teachings no one would truly experience suffering. If a loved one were to die, they would understand all things are impermanent. Yes Would an enlightened person experience the fruits of kamma by killing someone? No. An enlightened person has no reason or motive to kill someone He would not cause suffering to those who loved the one who was killed because they are enlightened too. No. An enlightened person has no reason or motive to kill someone You may say to yourself that an enlightened person would not have the urge to kill, because he is free from craving. Yes. I am aware of this, but this enlightened person would lets say not do this out of anger or hatred or greed, but killed another just so. No. That is not possible. You may then say that since an enlightened person is free from urges, he would not have any urge at all not even killing. Yes. But then would he have the urge to eat and so forth. The enlightened person is not a cannibal and therefore does not need to kill other human beings for food. However, as for killing other beings, such as worms or fish in acquiring food, your question is just hypothetical because there has never been 100% enlightened beings on this earth. But, you know, they could just eat things like fruit & nuts, which does not require any killing. I am sorry for the long question but it is really a stumbling block for me on my insight. The moral aspect of this is really bothering me. Should I just drop this question altogether? . Yes, definitely. But your mind already know the solution to your own dilema. This comes from insight or intuitive wisdom. I know that the fifth aggregate of consciousness talks about how consciousness is changed moment to moment, e.g eye-consciousness, ear-consciousness. And that the consciousness that sees is different from the one that hears. However, when you watch a movie, you see a person, and hear them talk at the same time. Is this because the moments of consciounsess arise and pass away so fast that they blend together? The arising & passing away is not so fast they it cannot be discerned by the mind. As for the blending together, this is just obscuration. Regards & welcome
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