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**arreskslarlig** · 02-24-2009, 04:20 PM

You catch the drift, it's been around since Adam (BTW, was he Jewish?).

Adam could not possible have been "jewish" whilst actually being "Jewish" ... was he then an Israelite? No, he was not even that ...

We can only truly use the term "Ïsraelite" to represent a "Chosen People" of God, after the Exodus ... with the giving of the Law by Moses.

02-24-2009, 04:20 PM	#11
arreskslarlig Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 470 Senior Member	You catch the drift, it's been around since Adam (BTW, was he Jewish?). Adam could not possible have been "jewish" whilst actually being "Jewish" ... was he then an Israelite? No, he was not even that ... We can only truly use the term "Ïsraelite" to represent a "Chosen People" of God, after the Exodus ... with the giving of the Law by Moses.
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