Shri PBKHema, Its an interesting thing you have written. If you have inferred this from some sources, please could you share them? Also, there is this debate that a) Shiva was pre-vedic and Vishnu was Vedic b) Both Shiva and Vishnu were Vedic c) Shiva was Vedic and Vishnu was Puranic But you have mentioned both Shiva and Vishnu as post-vedic dieties. Is there any reason for it? Also, is it possible that the same Indra lived from the vedic period of even as recent as 700 BC all the way to the puranic period of 300 to about 1500AD ? Regards.