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#1 |
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#2 |
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Many states prevented native americans from voting long after the federal government had recognized such a right. So not all of them got the right to vote at once. BZZT! Zero.
Seeing as the question asked which president was responsible for giving them voting rights, one would presume that would apply to federal voting rights, no? |
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#5 |
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They got the right to vote in the 1920's so I'm assuming Calvin Coolidge. My favourite president.
![]() Given as it was Lincoln a republican, who freed the slaves, and Coolidge, a republican, who gave the natives voting rights, the real question remains - is it not the republicans who have supported freedom while the democrats supported slavery? |
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#6 |
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Until the southern strategy yes of course it was the Democrats on the dark side, but given that the parties basically swapped bases this is hardly something any Republican should gloat about today. Yet it was Republicans who supported the Civil Rights act and democrats who did not. When did this mythical switch occur?
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#7 |
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#8 |
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This. The GOP's core constituency has remained constant for pretty much its entire history. The Whigs appealed to voters in every socio-economic category but proved especially attractive to the professional and business classes: doctors, lawyers, merchants, ministers, bankers, storekeepers, factory owners, commercially oriented farmers and large-scale planters. In general, commercial and manufacturing towns and cities voted Whig, save for strongly Democratic precincts in Irish Catholic and German immigrant communities; the Democrats often sharpened their appeal to the poor by ridiculing the Whigs' aristocratic pretensions. Protestant religious revivals also injected a moralistic element into the Whig ranks.[7] ... Many were pietistic Protestant reformers who called for public schools to teach moral values and proposed prohibition to end the liquor problem. The Republican union between business and religion dates at least to 1833 and the Whigs. |
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#9 |
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#10 |
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#12 |
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Give me some input. What makes you think Asians and/or Ameriandians were banned from voting in the first place? Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude. |
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#14 |
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#15 |
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#16 |
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#17 |
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Andrew Jackson gave them the right to go **** themselves. Theory 1: The only reason why whites turned easy and soft on American Indians in the 20th century was because they didn't see them as a threat anymore, like in the 19th century. Theory 2: Reservations of this day are basically zoos of people. They're isolated communities where the locals are paid by the host government to upkeep their culture and bloodline so they can be observed by curious tourists. In the instant moment when the host nation sees reservation as a potential genuine threat, it becomes obliterated. Any reason-based (as opposed to emotion-based) opposition to these theories? durr REPUBLICANS this, hurr DEMOCRATS that The 1924 act and the 1965 act which reversed many of it's goals were both based on slow, gradual ideological changes on how the voting public at large saw the US. Both received broad support from both parties. Neither has very little to do with party labels. |
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#18 |
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Yes. |
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#19 |
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#20 |
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Yes, Woodrow Wilson was a racist. Do you want a list of racist presidents or something? Also, why would I need to "admit" that a president signed (not passed) a bill? I have no reason to care. I personally find it amusing that you can't choke out a simple historical fact because it runs contrary to your bias. You certainly are willing to choke out excuses for why it doesn't really count though. Odd that.
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