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**Eagevawax** · 06-25-2012, 02:19 AM

How can we explain the fact the basque is not a celtic or even Indo-European language, but that also they have the highest R1b levels?

It is possible that certain subclades of R1b picked up the Indo-European cultural package from R1a groups around Central/Eastern Europe and then moved West spreading the language and culture to their R1b kin.

According to the Myres study, U152 (S28) is most diverse in Western Poland and matches the spread of the Celtic and Italic languages rather nicely, at least more so than other R1b subclades, save the British Isles and Ireland; two areas which adopted the IE languages relatively late.

I wouldn't stake my life on this claim, but it seems plausible.

06-25-2012, 02:19 AM	#8
Eagevawax Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 572 Senior Member	How can we explain the fact the basque is not a celtic or even Indo-European language, but that also they have the highest R1b levels? It is possible that certain subclades of R1b picked up the Indo-European cultural package from R1a groups around Central/Eastern Europe and then moved West spreading the language and culture to their R1b kin. According to the Myres study, U152 (S28) is most diverse in Western Poland and matches the spread of the Celtic and Italic languages rather nicely, at least more so than other R1b subclades, save the British Isles and Ireland; two areas which adopted the IE languages relatively late. I wouldn't stake my life on this claim, but it seems plausible.
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