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Old 05-02-2012, 11:56 PM   #6
Phighicle

Join Date
Oct 2005
Posts
482
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How much ? Very little. What the study did is lump everything that was not R1b and consider it as Jewish/Arab.
There was a similar study that said 1 of 2 Italians are of jewish origin.
And if we proceeded with the same methodology to France, we would get similar results to what Spain has.
1 There was never any mass expulsion of Marranos like there was of Moriscos.

2 There would have been some intermarriage with the Moors/Arabs/Judeans during Islamic rule with natives, they would have converted to Christianity once they long before 1492 in areas outside of Andalucia, by which time people would have forgotten the were moriscos. For instance in Valencia which was re-conquered in 1238, but had a Muslim majority at the time, many would have converted and by 1492 would have been accepted as 'normal' spaniards.
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