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**mesZibeds** · 03-25-2012, 12:02 PM

Because the term Latino is by definition more inclusive than Anglo. Why it's so hard for you to grasp this? Anglo have never had the cultural republicanist meaning that the term Latino had when the French initially created it (at a time when the continent was certainly less mixed than now), so I don't see the reason for your attempting to equate the two.

Regardless, my sister and I are vastly more culturally "Anglo" than Lusitanic, does that make us Anglo? Are we Lusitanic? No. No matter how you want to paint it, both Anglo and Latino are on the same level of what they're supposed to encompass.

03-25-2012, 12:02 PM	#29
mesZibeds Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 498 Senior Member	Because the term Latino is by definition more inclusive than Anglo. Why it's so hard for you to grasp this? Anglo have never had the cultural republicanist meaning that the term Latino had when the French initially created it (at a time when the continent was certainly less mixed than now), so I don't see the reason for your attempting to equate the two. Regardless, my sister and I are vastly more culturally "Anglo" than Lusitanic, does that make us Anglo? Are we Lusitanic? No. No matter how you want to paint it, both Anglo and Latino are on the same level of what they're supposed to encompass.
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