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Old 09-28-2011, 11:46 PM   #17
wallyfindme

Join Date
Oct 2005
Posts
609
Senior Member
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What and who is white, then?

Do you suggest that a Hispanic person who happen to be 100% Euro descend is a person of colour, just because they speak the "Aryan" Spanish language, and because other of his countrymen are mixed?

But in that case they may not be light brown, but as pale as any other European - not that all Europeans are pale.

It does smell a bit like a one drop rule, extended edition, to me. Now it even may include people who have no biological relation or cultural relation at all.

What about Southern Europeans, how do they relate to this, in the US?

And about "colored" - it's just none-white, but it's from the perspective of the white person. "Person of color" seems to be a self designation, and I've seen it used on tv a whole lot. First time I saw it used in this way was Halle Berry's acceptance speech at the Oscars. But I've seen it in articles and in interviews a lot, always as a self designation. It seems to be an extremely PC way of saying "non-white minority American" to me, but it's still a colorism, at least as a term.
In the Us society, Anglo Saxon whites, I am not the one suggesting it, US people society is the one who suggests it, I know there are White Latinos and then you have Spaniards, the US society seems to be the one who fails to see it.
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