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Old 04-11-2011, 01:51 AM   #1
evennyNiz

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Oct 2005
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Default are more heterogeneous countries more unequal by nature?
For example, you've got Bolivia where the 10% of the population -which is White, btw- has got a lot of the resources of the entire country, whilst the rest of the people -Natives- are quite poor. Same with Peru, for example. Mestizos are middle and lower-middle class. Blacks are as poor as Natives.

In countries with a large immigrant population as the USA, Spain and the UK, inequality is a big problem as well, whilst countries as Hungary, Iceland, Finland, Japan.. are far less unequal.




My country is characterized by a pseudo 'caste system', where people from upper classes are white (being 93% european - 7% native), and people from lower classes are mestizos (being 45% european - 55% native). ..

If you notice the GDP (PPP) of different social classes, you can see what I mean, and this supports the hypothesis:

GDP (PPP) Richest 20% of Chile: U$46,600 -> United States
GDP (PPP) Poorest 20% of Chile: U$3,500 -> Honduras

GDP (PPP) average of Chile: U$15,500





Terrible. Mainly a result of the Colony.



So tell us, do you agree or disagree with this?
Do you think inequality is mainly influenced by this, or by another factor?
How is your country in terms of inequality?
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Old 04-11-2011, 02:25 AM   #2
olivelappers

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No, take a look in Ghana!
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