lmHVYs8e |
04-18-2012 01:52 AM |
Quote:
Someone still has to explain me why value resulting from labor*capital-wage should be considered different than value from labor*capital-profit.
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Good phrasing of the same question in Marxian terms. The "*" operator ends up being a little bit sketchy, but it actually works OK for the simple sort of analysis you want. You're operating from an equation where labor*capital=wage+profit. The wage goes to the provider of the labor, and the profit goes to the provider of the capital.
The reason that wage and profit should be taxed differently is that the profit comes from the capital, which was initially formed by labor. It's not actually "labor*capital", but "labor*(labor*capital)", or even "labor*(labor*(labor*..." like a set Russian dolls.
Imagine that someone builds a shovel, which is used to dig a mine, which is used to get iron and coal, which is used to make steel, which is used to create construction machinery, which is used to make a drydock, which is used to make ships, which are sold to a foreign country. Applying taxes on the capital income side each step of the process ends up diminishing the value of the shovel-creator's labor most by hitting him with a long series of telescoping taxes, just because he happened to contribute very early on in the process - while the value of the shipmaker's labor is diminished the least through taxation.
Brought back to regular econ terms for non-Marxists: each time capital gains are realized and taxed, the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned several periods ago declines relative to the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned more recently.
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