[WaicurtaitfuT]

Roughly:

To be able to continue sailing NightClubber first complete
your User profile. (Click the link to bring up your data)
It's important to complete this so you will be able to continue using NightClubber without restrictions and to begin to participate in automatic drawings among all the members whose profiles are up to date.

[Mimsykzr]

WTF is NightClubber?

[occurrini]

Originally posted by AAHZ
WTF is NightClubber? http://www.nightclubber.com.ar/foro/12/sets-and-cds/

[WeightWatchyshow]

A quick crappy translation

Para poder continuar navegando NightClubber, deberás primero completar un par de datos faltantes de tu perfil de Usuario.
**
To continue surfing NightClubber, you will first have to fill the missing information in your profile**

Para completarlos lo único que debés hacer es dirigirte a tu perfil y editar los datos en blanco. (hacé click en el link para actualizar tus datos)

**To do it you have to go to your profile and edit the blank info**

Recordá que es muy importante que completes estos datos faltantes, asi podrás seguir navegando NightClubber sin restricciones y empezar a participar de sorteos automáticos entre todos los miembros con su perfil actualizado.

* Dont forget it is very importat that you fill the empty info,
so you will be able to continue surfing NightClubber without restrictions, and start participating of automatic raffles *

Si tenés problemas para completar tus datos, por favor lee la sección de ayuda haciendo click aca.

*If you have problems filling the empty info, please read the help section*

[CGH1KZzy]

I just wonder what kind of Spanish is that? For instance, "recordá". What the hell of a verb form is that? It should rather be "recuerda". Also, "si tenés problemas...". It should rather be "si tienes problemas...".

[Rwujnezq]

It is argentine spanish (and Uruguayan, Paraguayan)

Instead of "Tu" for second person singular they use "Vos"

In central america they also use it, and the same way, but they also use "tú". In the river plate region it is the only known form, they never use tú.

Now the spanish royal academy accepts it as correct, if you go to its dictionary online you will find verbs conjugated that way too.


The verbs are conjugated similar to "vosotros"


Verbs which end in "ir" are conjugated like in vosotros, for
example vivir

vosotros vivís, vos vivís

The others lose the I in the dipthong

vosotros pensáis , vos pensás


In the imperative the final d is lost

vosotros recordad, vos recordá / not tu recuerda

[23tommy]

According to the wiki article

Countries which only or overwhelmingly use "vos" are

Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay, Guatemala, Honduras, El Salvador, Nicaragua, Costa Rico.
There they either only use "vos" or overwhelmingly "vos" with the use of "tú" diminishing

Countries where only "tú" is used are Spain, Cuba, Perú, Puerto Rico and Dominican Republic.

In the rest , "tú" is overwhelmingly used except for a few regions where "vos" is used, for example Chiapas in Mexico or Santa Cruz in Bolivia, but there the tendency is for "vos" to disappear and only use "tú"

[skydaypat]

when my mother studied Spanish in school, in the 1940s, the NYC public schools taught Castillian Spanish. When I was in school in the 1970's, my friends who took Spanish said they were taught Argentinian Spanish. When I took an adult ed class in Spanish in Jacksonville Florida in the 1980s, I learned Cuban Spanish, cause the instructor was from Cuba. I dont even know the differences, but I liked to say I learned the dialect of middle class Havana of the 1950s Not that I learned all that much.

[Cyclicymn]

Castillian and Spanish mean the same thing


Imagine that the english langauge could also be called british

In that case, castillian would be like english, and british like spanish


Castillian spanish I bet means spanish as spoken in Castile

Arrian, were you taught to pronounce "z" and "c" before an "e" or an "i" (like in celos or cinco) as th in think?

And ll as the lli in million?

In that case you were taught to speak as in castile, it is a difference of pronounciation, not of grammar.

In latin america "z" and "c" in front of "e" and "i" are all pronounced like "s"


The only grammar difference between Spain and most of latin america is in Spain they use vosotros

Spanish has 2 words for second person singular Tu*, which is for people you know well, family, coworkers, people of the same hierarchy ,friends etc
And usted, which is more polite

Spanish also has 2 works for second person plural, vosotros and ustedes, the difference is the same as between tu and usted, in spain they use both, but in latin america they only use ustedes.


*I did not put "vos", because it is only used by a minority of latin americans, around 20% of spanish speakers

[Bill-Watson]

Latin America was colonized mainly from Seville and Cadiz, that is why we dont pronounce the "th" sound

[Bobdilan]

Originally posted by Barnabas
Castillian and Spanish mean the same thing


Imagine that the english langauge could also be called british

In that case, castillian would be like english, and british like spanish AFAIK no one says they speak the Argentinian dialect of Castilian.

For whatever historic reasons, the relationships just arent the same. While English as a nationality is a subset of British, British as a language is a subset of english. Probably because "british" as a language name was associated with welsh/breton (Brythonic) celtic. So the language of Shakespeare continued to be called English after the act of Union. So we speak of American English, and British English, but not of "American British".

OTOH Spanish as a language, at least by 1500, referred to Castilian (AFAIK) and settlers in the new world called themselves Spanish (AFAIK) even if they were Aragonese.

Does anyone where you live refer to the language they speak as Castilian?

Of course in terms of dialects, IIUC, most latin american dialects are close to andalusian, which was of course part of Castille, so really we should be saying "Madrid dialect" or something like that for the official dialect of Spain. Im not sure if using the term "castilian" for Madrid dialect is just a USA thing, or not.

[MightyMasd]

Originally posted by Barnabas
Speaking the argentine dialect of castilian does not sound rare to my ears (Dialecto argentino del castellano)

And Andalusia belonged to the kingdom of Castile, but it is not Castile

Yes, settlers refered themselves as spaniards, because spaniard is the common nationality, referring themselves as castillians would have been wrong, because most settlers were andalusians, basques or from extremadura, not from Castile (Madrid, Burgos, Toledo, Valladolid etc)


Spanish and Castilian are synonyms, in some countries most people say "castellano" like Argentina or Peru, and in some countries like Mexico people say "español" using both forms is common too

Only in Spain the difference has political connotations, because there, some people prefer to call it castellano, because they consider Catalan or Galician or Basque to be "spanish" languages too. So castilian would be just another spanish language.


Wiki has an article about this issue, in english

"Spaniards tend to call the language español (Spanish) when contrasting it to languages of other states, such as in a list with French (francés), Chinese (chino), etc. Castellano (Castilian) by contrast, is more often used when contrasting the language with other regional languages of Spain: Aragonese, Asturian, Basque, Catalan, Galician, and so on. In this manner, the Spanish Constitution of 1978 uses the term castellano to define the official language of the whole State, opposed to las demás lenguas españolas (lit. the other Spanish languages). Article III reads as follows:

El castellano es la lengua española oficial del Estado. (...) Las demás lenguas españolas serán también oficiales en las respectivas Comunidades Autónomas...

Castilian is the official Spanish language of the State (...) The other Spanish languages shall also be official in their respective Autonomous Communities...
"


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Names_g...anish_language Ok, thanks, I learned something.

Im guessing the US usage is probably influenced by the Mexican usage then.

[Attarderb]

Originally posted by Thorgal
Ibitha. In all Spain "z" is always pronounced -th-, excepting Canary Islands and to a lesser degree at some places in western Andalusia, as Seville. I'd argue for "Ibisa" or "Ibitsa". On the Baleares, they speak a form of Catalan and don't have the "th" sound.
For the same reason it's "Barselona" rather than "Barthelona".

[Sierabiera]

Thanks for having enlightened me, guys. Especially, Barnabas

[sitescools]

Originally posted by The Vagabond
Yet there appears to be an inconsistency. Look at the original quote from LordShiva:

Para poder continuar navegando NightClubber, deberás primero completar un par de datos faltantes de tu perfil de Usuario.
Para completarlos lo único que debés hacer es dirigirte a tu perfil y editar los datos en blanco. (hacé click en el link para actualizar tus datos)
Recordá que es muy importante que completes estos datos faltantes, asi podrás seguir navegando NightClubber sin restricciones y empezar a participar de sorteos automáticos entre todos los miembros con su perfil actualizado.

Si tenés problemas para completar tus datos, por favor lee la sección de ayuda haciendo click aca.

¡Muchas gracias!

So it looks like they use "tu". Yet the verb forms are for "vos". [For the future tense, the verb forms for "tu" and "vos" apparently coincide.]

Also, they write "completes", which is the subjunctive for "tu". For "vos" it should have been "completés" (with an accent).

Besides, "lee" (tu)->"leé" (vos). It seems that the author of the text is not precisely Borges, so i would not care too much about where he places his accents and such.

[Caunnysup]

By the way, it is "tú", not "tu".

[AntonioXYZ]

It is not wrong, the subjunctive is conjugated like with tú

Argentines say

Ni lo pienses! not, ni lo pensés!

Something else which is conjugated as with tú is

tu escuchaste / vos escuchaste/comiste/hiciste

not escuchastes / comistes which would be what would make sense since

vosotros escuchasteis without the i is escuchastes

[JediReturns84]

Originally posted by Thorgal

That makes sense. However it is odd that in other places of Andalusia or Extremadura the opossed phenomenon is common also (at some places even more common, as in Cadiz). I mean pronouncing a strong /th/ not only with -z- or -ci- -ce-, but also instead of -s-, known as "ceceo". I wonder if there is any ceceo in any American country. Según Wikipedia lo hay en algunos lugares de América, pero en rincones aislados.

http://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceceo

[Pheboasmabs]

Oops. It seems I fell into a habit.