General Discussion Undecided where to post - do it here. |
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#25 |
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#27 |
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We were discussing the question that is the title of the thread, but now we're probably going to start laughing about what a retard you are. |
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#30 |
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#31 |
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Oh and ****face Drake, GDP can be in nominal terms but adjusted for PPP. Nominal vs real indicates there has been a correction for inflation. ![]() You ****ing moron, when you are talking about cross-country comparisons (when will China have higher GDP than the US) it indicates whether or not you've adjusted for purchasing power across countries (PPP). When you are talking about cross-time comparisons (when will the US have twice the GDP it does today) it indicates whether or not you've adjusted for purchasing power across times (CPI). ![]() |
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#32 |
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#34 |
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Now, if we were discussing the question "when will China have higher GDP than the US does today" we would have to be a little more careful. And because the baskets for calculating PPP and CPI are not guaranteed to generate consistent answers, it matters in which direction we close the FX triangle. All I am saying is that PPP does not have to include CPI for the dollar. And I am not taking about growth rates you daft person. In know that PPP has only marginal impact on growth rates. I am talking about determining the level at which China will start to slow down if they follow the same path as the Japanese or the Koreans did. |
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#36 |
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Again, I am not ****ing disagreeing with you on your calculation, you twit. I know how it is done. Thanks for kicking in an open door yet again.
Your line 2) gives you nominal GDP adjusted for PPP. It is the same as real GDP if you use USD in real terms for base year t. Alpie said that from a GDP of about XX/cap he saw a slowdown for Japan some 20 years ago. China is close to this number so China should slow down. In order to say something usefull on this you have to apply both PPP and CPI of the dollar to the XX. Not 100 % correct because of your 1a, I know, but good enough for practical use. |
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