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#1 |
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Assalam 'Aleikoum wa rahmtulillahi wa barakatuhu
reading the tafsir about sura 33, aya 59: on classicalislamgroup. I don't understand this, if a slave woman during the period of Sahaba (r.a), if she wanted could she wear hijab? or it's ONLY for free women? jasakum Allahu kayran |
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#2 |
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I think if you ask scholars they will tell you that in the hadith where Umar (raa) says this thing, which is presumably from where it got into the tafsir, he did not mean that they should not cover their hair or nakedness - just that they should not cover their faces as a means of distingiushing them from the free women who were more likely to. Umar (raa) liked everyone to appear different so that others knew what they were.
I personally wouldn't ask questions on this website over most matters but it has a good answer for a very similar question http://www.************/en/ref/8489/ Is this true that -- "Honorable or good muslim women wear hajab But low class muslim women don't"? This is the understanding of few muslims in my community. They base their understanding from the following hadith. Please clarify. I'm producing the hadith for your convinience. This hadith is recorded in the Sahih of Al-Bukhari with the following wording: The Companion Anas ibn Malik narrates: The Prophet stayed for three rights between Khaibar and Medina and was married to Safiya. I invited the Muslims to his marriage banquet and there was neither meat nor bread in that banquet but the Prophet ordered Bilal to spread the leather mats on which dates, dried yogurt and butter were put. The Muslims said amongst themselves, "Will she (i.e. Safiya) be one of the mothers of the believers, (i.e. one of the wives of the Prophet ) or just (a lady captive) of what his right-hand possesses?" Some of them said, "If the Prophet makes her observe the veil, then she will be one of the mothers of the believers (i.e. one of the Prophet's wives), and if he does not make her observe the veil, then she will be his lady slave." So when he departed, he made a place for her behind him (on his camel) and made her observe the veil. Few thing I'd like to know more are time frame of this incident, before or after the revelation of Al-Ahzab( 33:59) etc. I'm seeking your opinion as par on-line hadithsearch's recommendation. ANSWER The hadeeth came after the revelation of the hijaab and after it was made obligatory for the believing women. But the full hijaab is only for free women; slaves and concubines should not resemble free women by wearing the full hijaab. A slave woman does not have to cover her face, and ‘Umar (may Allaah be pleased with him) used to forbid them to do so. This is the case if there is no fear of fitnah from them; but if there is fitnah, then they have to do whatever will prevent that fitnah. Written by al-Khudayr |
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#3 |
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#4 |
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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XJE9YNZHO-0 you mean this one?
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#5 |
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slavery is long gone anyway and is unlikely to ever come back InshaAllah,
this question is very theoretical to say the least yes? maybe it refers to the non-Muslim slave not a Muslim slave Sayyidina Umar (raa) liked the non-Muslims to look different from the Muslims I wonder what put this question in your head? this issue is sometimes brought up by the anti-Hijab brigade avoid them they are poisonous people who twist the religion to suit their inclinations this is a very fine point of fiqh, I think you should ask a scholar when you do I would love to hear their answer to you |
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