[Inenuedbabnor]

How much leeway can any other other Muslim give ? Its not like state in Islam has more rights than a normal Muslim can have. A state head is a individual Muslim too. Just that he is invested with more power or control and hence more responsibility. His rights are the same. Issues which are communal fard perhaps gets done by the state because of the better ability to function orderly.

In question of leeway we would have to look at what category of priority the issue comes in and the nature of the issue with regards to its obligatoryness and type of proof and the state of society as to whether it would bring more harm than good.

i am getting you. what if the country is consisting of majority population favorable towards islam and a significant minority extremist secularists? in pakistan for example, my friend who is a supporter of pakistan tehreek e insaaf ( a secular party) told me explicitly that implementation of qata yadd, rajm etc were just not possible in pakistan yet as it would create an uproar. give us some time , let the country be islamicized then we will implement them.
i have no doubt in my mind that party has no interest in islamic law nor will they ever work towards making an environment conductive to islamic laws.

what to do then?there will always be hue and cry whenever shariah is implemented. how much does one wait? and how does one measure that the society is now receptive to islamic laws?
am i correct in saying that the islamic laws governing the state were not revealed at once because of this precise reason? was the islamic society in makkah and madinah gradually islamicized before the entire shariah was applied?